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cinta_nabillah  
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bullet Topic: Adultery (Definition & Punishment in Isla
    Posted: 13 July 2009 at 10:52am
Hi all... wasallammuaikum....
 
I want to ask sensitive questions, about the definition of adultery and what is the punishment of adultery in Islam. 
 
Thanks & Regards,
Cinta
 
 
 
 
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Al-Cordoby  
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bullet Posted: 13 July 2009 at 12:27pm
Adultery (Zina) in Islam is for a Muslim man to have sexual relations with other than his wife, or a Muslim woman to have sexual relations with other than her husband
 
It is one of the major sins in Islam
 
For more details, you may wish to check this answer from IOL:
 
 
 
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cinta_nabillah  
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 2:03am
Hi Al-Cordoby.... wasallamuaikum...
 
Thanks for your explaination. btw, I once read the biography of Muhammad that he had sex with his wife's slave. His wife was so angry and told this shameful story to other wives and friends. The slave's name is Mariah the coptic girl.  
 
Can this be categorised as adultery or zina???
 
Thanks & Regards,
Cinta
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 2:16am
When Islam was revealed, slavery was the norm in most countries, like today you find that (democracy) is the norm in most countries around the world
 
At the time, slavery was a worldwide common social phenomenon; it was much older than Islam
 
Mariyah was a sent as a gift to the Prophet from the ruler of Egypt (Al-Muqawqis). At that time, accepting a slave as a gift was permissible, but today slavery has been abolished, which is what Islam encouraged people to do, as this is no longer applied.
 
Islam liberated slaves in gradual stages, and one of the ways for their liberation is through marriage.
 
For more background:
 
 
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cinta_nabillah  
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 4:26am
 
I believe Islam is given by Allah to bring human beings to the correct way.
But I cannot understand why Allah allowed Muhammad to follow the wrong way.
 
Instead of showing the correct way, Prophet Muhammad followed the wrong way (lie to his wife and then had sex with Mariah). I believe that Prophet Moses had delivered the clear message from Allah that we shall not conduct adultery. But why Muhammad still did it???
 
And again, why Muhammad allowed his soldiers to rape jewish females in the Khaibar war??? Why they did such an immoral action???
 
I truly sad knowing these immoral stories and very very sad knowing that it was done by my lovely Prophet. Please... please help me.
 
Thanks & regards,
Cinta
 
  
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 5:06am
It is not the wrong way, sister
 
Gradual change in society was one of the main features in Islam, and this principle was applied to the eradication of slavery. Had it been a command from day 1 to liberate all slaves, it would have been a command too difficult for the vast majority of people to follow
 
This same principle was applied in the prohibition of alcohol, which was not applied from Day 1, but after more than 15 years from the start of the revelation of The Qur'an. This gave people a transition phase, which prepared them for change before the verse which prohibited alcohol was revealed, three earlier verses had apready prepared them to quit
 
Islam is a realistic religion ..............
 
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 7:09am

Amox, look here.

We were discussing this.
 
If Indonesia have the same laws like Singapore and enforce it well like Singapore, those conflicts between Christians and Muslims in Indonesia wouldn't  have happened.
 
Need I remind you of malicious intents we were discussing?
 
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 9:38am
I think you're on the wrong bus Traveller!
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 8:53pm
 
Hi all... wasallamualaikum Al Cordoby....
 
Thanks for your explaination. I can distinguish the difference between process in the society and the action of a prophet.
 
I believe in our Prophet time, adultery is clearly prohibited by jewish society in Khaibar, Medinah & Mekah (they refer to Moses Law). Also prohibited by Christian Coptic society in Jazirah Arabia (they refer to Al Kitab). When our Prophet told lie to his wife and then had sex with Mariah the Coptic girl. Then allowed the Muslim soldiers to rape the jewish female in Khaibar, it would show to the world that our Prophet did something contradict & negative. It is not the process to a better society condition, but ruin the positive society norm (prohibit adultery) at that time.
 
Can our Prophet action to Mariah the Coptic girl be categorized as adultery or zinah? Can the Muslim soldiers in Khaibar be categorized as zinah?
 
And what is the punishment of adultery/ zinah in Islam?
 
I really want to know the answer, because it's always confusing me.
 
Thanks & Regards,
Cinta
 
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bullet Posted: 14 July 2009 at 9:00pm
Did you read the IOL answer above?

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bullet Posted: 15 July 2009 at 4:50am
Hi all... wasallamualaikum Al Cordoby...
 
Yes, I read all the article and I clearly understand what stated in the article. It is not the answer for adultery but the justification for legalising the wrong action. Raping a slave to make her free is not rasional and I believe only satan/syaitan whom order this action.
 
Loving and respecting female slave is not by raping her (in order to make her and her baby free). Especially to rape the jewish women in front of their husbands (husband dead bodies) in the Khaibar war.
 
I can see how Chinese feminist are angry to Japanese soldiers who rape more than 100,000 women in Nanjing War in 1942. The purpose of raping the chinese women, of course, not to make them free, but to humiliate the chinese women.
 
Rape is adultery. Told lie to your wife and then have sex with her servant (or her slave) is also adultery. Is it right or I'm wrong?
 
I really curious about this thing. I'm crying everyday when I think about this. Please help me.
 
Thanks & Regards,
Cinta
 
Ps: Al Cordoby, sorry I do not mean to irritate you. I appreciate your effort.
 
 
 
   
 
 
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bullet Posted: 15 July 2009 at 11:44am
There is no irritation, as I know your purpose (from your own introduction)
 
You are mixing up 5 or more different issues, and so far I have responded to the first issue concerning Maria, the Coptic slave given as a gift from the Christian ruler of Egypt
 
Did you understand that point?
 
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bullet Posted: 15 July 2009 at 12:16pm
Hi all.... Wasallamualaikum....
 
Yes I do understand the point. Btw, I do not focus on the slavery thing, I focus on the adultery.
 
My still-unanswered question is whether it can be categorised as adultery / zinah when mother of believers, Siti Hafsa surprisingly found his husband on her bed having sex with her servant, Mariah the Coptic girl.
 
Siti Hafsa's husband took an oath that he would never touch Mariah again. But unfortunately he broke his own promise and made Mariah pregnant. 
 
I really want to know whether it can be categorised as adultery or zinah? Or it is an exceptional only for our Prophet?
 
Furthermore did Allah allow this kind of action?
 
Thanks & Regards,
Cinta
 
 
 
 
 
 
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bullet Posted: 15 July 2009 at 1:19pm
There is no adultery involved as it was permissible
 
The Qur'an clearly says (ma malakat aymanakum) are lawful
 
How often you read The Qur'an?
 
 
 
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